Further we're going to use affine polynomials to describe projective curves. That means that we're actually describing a curve on a projective open set Uz={[x,y,1],x,y∈F} and then there are some points of infinity that we can analyze using homogeneization.
For example affine equation y−x2=1 describes a projective equation yz−x2=z2.
From (3.4.13) we have dimL(n(O))=n. Note that L(n(O)) contains functions that don't have a pole more than of order n. So dimL(2(O))=2 and it will have basis {1,f} and dimL(3(O))=3 and it will have a basis {1,f,g} for some functions f,g∈F(E)F. Note that f has a pole of order 2 and g has a pole of order 3. Thus {1,f,f2,f3,g,g2,fg}⊆L(6(O)) But we know that dimL(6(O))=6 so there's a linear relations between these fuctions:
Note that A6A7=0, otherwise each other term would have a pole of different order so all Ai must be 0 in this case. Now assume f=−A6A7f,g=A6A72g then dividing by A63A74 we'll get:
g2+a1fg+a3g=f3+a2f2+a4f+a6
So if we consider a map:
ϕ:E→P2,P↦[f(P),g(P),1]
Then it's image will be a curve C subject to Weierstrass equation. Since E is smooth by (3.4.3) it's a morphism. And since it's non-constant it's surjective by (3.4.4). Finally note that ordOg=−3,ordOf=−2 so if we assume g=g1/g2,f=f1/f2 we can make ϕ(O)=[g2(O)⋅f1(O)/f2(O),g1(O),g2(O)]=[0,1,0]
Next, we want to show that degϕ=1. By definition this means that [F(E):ϕ∗F(C)]=1. Let's recall how we define pullback of a function h∈F(C):
This means that ϕ∗F(C) will have some rational functions of f and g, in other words ϕ∗F(C)=F(f,g). Additional note for clarity of notation: F(C) means a functional field of a curve C so here F stands for functional, while F(f,g) is a field extension of the base field F, so F here is a field.
Now let's consider a map: ϕf:E→P1,P↦[f(P),1]. In this case ϕx−1([1,0])=O (since f has the only pole in O) and eϕf(O)=ordOϕf∗t[1,0]=−ordOf=2. So by (3.4.5) we have degϕf=2. Knowing that ϕf∗F(P1)=F(f) implies [F(E):F(f)]=2.
Similarly [F(E):F(g)]=3. But since we have tower of extensions F(E)/F(f,g)/F(f) and F(E)/F(f,g)/F(g) we know that:
This implies that [F(E):F(f,g)]=1 and thus degϕ=1. So by (3.4.4) we have E≅ϕC.
Now let's prove C is smooth. Assume otherwise - there exist some singular point. By linear change of variables we can assume it's (0,0). Then using partial derivatives criterion we can check that the equation in this case is:
y2+a1xy=x3+a2x
Then we can make a rational map ψ:C→P1,(x,y)↦[x,y]. Then degψ=1 since it has an inverse [1,t]↦(t2+a1t−a2,t3+a1t2−a2t)
So we built a rational map of degree 1 ϕ∘ψ:E→P1. So by (3.4.4) it's an isomopshism. But it cannot be the case since gen(E)=1 and by (3.4.13)gen(P1)=0. So we arrived at contradiction and thus C is smooth
b.
As in (a) we consider two maps ϕ=[f,g,1],ϕ′=[f′,g′,1] where both f,g and f′,g′ are the bases for L(2(O)) and L(3(O)) respectively. Since they're the bases of the same spaces we can write:
f=u1f′+r,g=u2g′+s2f′+t
Since in Weierstrass form f3 and g2 has coefficents 1 it follows u13=u22. Letting u=u2/u1 and s=s2/u2 we have:
f=u2f′+r,g=u3g′+su2f′+t
Thus defining x=f(P),y=g(P),P∈E we finish the proof.
c.
Consider some point P0=(x0,y0). Denote F(x,y):=eq(C). Since F(x,y)≡0 we know that 0=dF(x,y)=Fx(x,y)dx+Fy(x,y)dy so we can define
ω:=Fy(x,y)d(x−x0)=−Fx(x,y)d(y−y0)
Note that ω cannot have pole in P, otherwise Fx(x0,y0)=Fy(x0,y0)=0 and P is singular. Consider a map:
ϕ:E→P1,[x,y,1]→[x,1]
F(E)=F(x,y),ϕ∗F(P1)=F(x). Since in Weierstrass form y2 is a polynomial of x we'll have degϕ=[F(x,y):F(x)]=2. The other way to think about it is that the preimage of any point in P1 is two points (because we solve for y2) or 1 points in which case it's ramified with index 2.
The uniformizer in P1 at point ϕ(P)=[x0,1] is tϕ(P)=x−x0, so ϕ∗tϕ(P)=x−x0. Since 2=degϕ=∑Q∈ϕ−1(ϕ(P))ordQ(ϕ∗tϕ(Q)) and one of Q is P itself, we have ordP(x−x0)≤2. It also follows that we either have one point in pre-image and then ordP(x−x0)=2 or two points and then ordP(x−x0)=1. In the first case the polynomial F(x0,y) has double root and so Fy(x0,y0)=0, in the second case two distincts roots and Fy(x0,y0)=0. In any case:
ordP(ω)=ordP(x−x0)−ordP(Fy)−1=0
Note that in case Fy(x0,y0)=0 we know that ordP(Fy)≥1 but it cannot be strictly greater because that order of ω would be strictly less than 0 and we establised above that in cannot be the case.
So we proved that ω has zero order in any P in affine plane. One last thing is we need to consider its order in O. We know that ordOx=−2 and ordOy=−3 so x=utO−2,y=vtO−3 where u(O),v(O)=0,∞ (units in local ring at O) and:
Since u is regular, by (3.4.11.f)u′ is regular as well, t(O)=0 meaning the neither numerator nor denominator goes to 0 at O and thus ordO(ω)=0. So we proved:
div(ω)=0
Finally by (3.4.13.b) we have
2gen(C)−2=degdivω=0⟹gen(C)=1
and taking O=[0,1,0] we finish the proof
□.
note
(b) show that having this form of linear transformation is necessary condition for the curve to be the same
We can simplify the equation using linear transformations. First, let's map y↦21(y−a1x−a3). Note that transformation matrix is (−a1110) with detA=1 so it's invertible and thus isomopshism. Then the equation becomes:
Next, we can eliminate the x2 term by applying the substitution
(x,y)↦(36x−3b2,108y). Again the transformation matrix is (1/36001/108) so this is isomopshism. Then if charF=2,3 we get:
y2=x3+Ax+B,A=−27c4,B=−54c6
This form of the elliptic curve is called a Short Weiestrass form that we'll denote eqWs(E). Note that when we transform the curve from Weierstrass curve to Short Weierstrass curve we actually change the curve so it's not the same curve anymore. But we do it via P2 automorphism so we can actually take some points on the original curve, transform these points via automorphism to Short Weierstrass curve, do some operations there and then come back to original curve via the inverse automorphism.
Thus essentially we can consider only Short Weiestrass curves. If it happens that the curve is not Short Weierstrass then we just use the algorithm above and thus we need to learn to deal with only the Short Weierstrass curves.
Note that in the table of transformation above we see that at this particular transformation Δ just scales by u12. It can be shown that the transformation y↦21(y−a1x−a3) does the same thing. So it doesn't change Δ being zero or non-zero. Thus we can consider the equation in the form:
y2=4x3+b2x2+2b4x+b6
The point (x0,y0) is singular iff partial derivatives are zero, that is
2y0=12x02+2b2x0+2b4=0
So singular point has a form (x0,0), moreover polynomial p(x):=4x3+b2x2+2b4x+b6 has p(x0)=0, px′(x0)=0 so x0 should be a root of order at least 2 and thus discriminant of the cubic should go to zero. But it's discriminant is 16Δ so we finished the proof. As a side note since cubic can have only one root of order 2, there could be only one singular point in Weiestrass.
⟸
Consider an elliptic curve in the Long Weierstrass form:
f(x,y)=y2+a1xy+a3y−x3−a2x2−a4x−a6
And its projective form:
F(x,y,z)=y2z+a1xyz+a3yz2−x3−a2x2z−a4xz2−a6z3
At point O it has ∂F/∂z(O)=1, so O∈S(E).
Next, consider some singular point P∈/S(E) and P=(x0,y0). We can consider transformation x′=x+x0,y′=y+y0. Under this transformation we have Δ not changing (see above for u=1,s=0,r=x0,t=y0). So we may assume that the singular point is (0,0). Since the curve is singular at (0,0) it means that fx′(0,0)=0 and fy′(0,0)=0. Since (0,0)∈E it also means that f(0,0)=0. But we know that
If we take two Weierstrass forms of E1 and E2 they will be isomorphic. Thus by (4.1.1.b) they're related by transformation that doesn't change the j-invariant.
⟸
We will prove for char F≥5 and curves in short Weierstrass form: